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Re: Define "Slavery in the traditional sense exists in significant numbers only in barbarian societies" 

By: hydro_gen in POPE 5 | Recommend this post (1)
Wed, 31 Jul 19 1:32 AM | 41 view(s)
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Msg. 36929 of 62138
(This msg. is a reply to 36927 by Decomposed)

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Decomposed - I put TWO LINKS in my post - the WaPo link was a 'quickie' and insignificant in comparison to the FIRST LINK.

I did not mean to jump in to your conversation with Micro yet when anyone states that 40+Million people in SLAVERY "works out to about one half of one percent of the world's population... and that's well within the margin of error of most statistical samplings. In other words, the number could possibly be 2.5 percent or it could be zero. So, I question the number." all I can say is that marginalizing 40+ MILLION people is a grossly EDIT: misinformed thing to state - especially IF you are one of the 40,000,000++!!!

Here is the link again to the interactive map of Global Slavery I posted that you missed - very enlightening.
http://www.globalslaveryindex.org/2018/data/maps/#prevalence

This link is to the 2018 Global Slavery Index from the Walk Free Foundation - the file is almost 59MB and 276 pages and should eliminate ANY AND ALL doubt that slavery is rampant and was not eradicated as you seem to think it was 100+ years ago. It is a comprehensive file that you will enjoy.

http://www.globalslaveryindex.org/resources/downloads/

PEACE!!!


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The above is a reply to the following message:
Re: Define "Slavery in the traditional sense exists in significant numbers only in barbarian societies"
By: Decomposed
in POPE 5
Wed, 31 Jul 19 12:34 AM
Msg. 36927 of 62138

hydro_gen:

Re: "I do not know about you yet if the estimated 40,000,000+ people are indeed enslaved that, to me, is a SIGNIFICANT number regardless of demographics."
I can't read your link due to having used up my quota of free articles with the Washington Post.

40 million is a lot of people. But it works out to about one half of one percent of the world's population... and that's well within the margin of error of most statistical samplings. In other words, the number could possibly be 2.5 percent or it could be zero. So, I question the number.

I also question the definition of "slave" used in the article since I have no idea what it is. Are we including North Korea? That's 26 million people right there. How about prostitutes under the control of pimps? Child workers in Bangladesh? Muslim women who can't leave their home alone?

I'm not trying to make light of the problem, just to understand it and figure out whether the "slavery" being talked about by the Washington Post is the same as what once existed in the U.S. (I don't think the term truly applies unless the victim has no means of escape.) The Washington Post does tend to exaggerate.

BTW, when I looked into the number earlier, I came away with 30 million from a 2013 article in the Washington Post. You just posted 40 million from a 2017 Washington Post article. That suggests to me tremendous uncertainty -- that nobody really knows the number. Or changing definitions... something I'm always wary of. There are women in NOW who claim that every married woman is a slave. Ha! See below:


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