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Re: Absolutely Nothing

By: DigSpace in ALEA | Recommend this post (0)
Sat, 21 Jun 14 5:53 AM | 22 view(s)
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Msg. 15681 of 54959
(This msg. is a reply to 15677 by Cactus Flower)

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on the independence to pressure but depdendence of temperature ... can one ever dissociate the pressure from the temperature of a gas? just an extrapolation of PV=nRT. I realize the ideal gas law is a closed system thingy and that the atmosphere is it not the place to apply it, but it seems that given the fundamentals of the ideal gas law that some component of the inverse relationship of T and P e gases must be in some way inescapable such that a fancy enough mathmetician could come up with a working formula that lacked temperature and had instead pressure?


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The above is a reply to the following message:
Re: Absolutely Nothing
By: Cactus Flower
in ALEA
Sat, 21 Jun 14 12:17 AM
Msg. 15677 of 54959

Oh yes. Explanation on Mach numbers. They are created using two variables: temperature and atmospheric composition. They are largely independent of pressure. So the combination of atmosphere and temperature defines resistance.

As a plane rises, the air gets thinner but it also gets colder. The lowering of temperature seems to have a slightly greater effect than the thinning of the atmosphere. So the speed of sound lowers as altitude increases.

The effect of this is that planes reach a particular Mach number at a lower velocity the higher they fly.

"At altitude, for reasons explained, Mach number is a function of temperature. Aircraft flight instruments, however, operate using pressure differential to compute Mach number, not temperature. The assumption is that a particular pressure represents a particular altitude and, therefore, a standard temperature. Aircraft flight instruments need to operate this way because the stagnation pressure sensed by a Pitot tube is dependent on altitude as well as speed.

Assuming air to be an ideal gas, the formula to compute Mach number in a subsonic compressible flow is found from Bernoulli's equation for M < 1 (above):[7]

\mathrm{M} = \sqrt{5\left[\left(\frac{q_c}{p}+1\right)^\frac{2}{7}-1\right]}\,
"

So on the one hand, you have to establish if a plane has the thrust and lift to reach a particular velocity, net of the drag.

And on the other, you have to consider if the frame and the engine can deal with the shock waves at a particular Mach number.

From what I have read, the 767 has the power to reach Mach 0.86. If it was regularly flown at speeds above 0.5 Mach at lower altitudes, there would be wear and tear issues requiring higher maintenance costs. But it would come apart at the seams if flown a bit above Mach 0.86 at any altitude.

I could be wrong. But that is how I read the sources I have read.


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