hi tkc,
i am not sure we are in alignment as i am not sure i know enough about the purpose of discrimination in favour of married people.
equality just seems irrelevant to me. sometimes there's a social purpose to discrimination in favour of a group (such as parents). but i don't see it in the case of marriage.
what's the social purpose in giving folks who make reversible commitments an advantage over single people or unmarried couples?
i see a reason to benefit parents. but that's a different set.
at this moment, i see no reason for marital equality in federal law. as i see no reason for marital advantage at all. marital advantage of any kind.
maybe i am missing something.