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Re: Follow-up ? on Families (Data) ... 

By: Data_Rox in IDCC | Recommend this post (1)
Fri, 04 May 12 10:42 PM | 306 view(s)
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Msg. 45095 of 48237
(This msg. is a reply to 45094 by Rakitno)

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technically sir....

sorry....popped into my head (Attack of Killer Tomatoes)

Dr. Nokitofa: Technically sir, tomatoes are fags.
Dr. Morrison: He means fruits.

R^)
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so each patent granting... no matter where...is technically a single "patent" (thus the 19K+ "patents")

In general, you are correct that at minimum someone would want the whole "family"....unless they just want to prosecute it in only a particular country or region

So for "counting"....you count them all

in valuation though (what we're most interested in)....you count the families....or at least use the US patent count since it's a lot more work to dig down to the continuations/continuations in part to the same priority

JMO




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The above is a reply to the following message:
Follow-up ? on Families (Data) ...
By: Rakitno
in IDCC
Fri, 04 May 12 10:22 PM
Msg. 45094 of 48237

So, all patents sold are actually, at minimum, "patent families"? Because why would anyone buy an individual issued patent without it's corresponding international equivalent, at minimum.

Also, when counting the number of patents issued to InterDigital should an international equivalent patent be considered a single seperate patent in one's tally?


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