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Re: New theory

By: Cactus Flower in ALEA | Recommend this post (0)
Fri, 23 Mar 12 9:11 PM | 107 view(s)
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Msg. 07012 of 54959
(This msg. is a reply to 07010 by DigSpace)

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Hi dig,

By definition, cash carried forward is:

Cash balance brought forward,

plus profit or less loss with non-cash items removed (so in your 1, normally items like R&D and COS are cash-related - things like salaries and hotel expenses and suchlike - but items like stock based compensation and depreciation are fished out),

adjusted for changes in working capital balances (things like AR, AP etc), which don't go through the P&L (- this deals with your concern in 2),

adjusted for things like purchases of fixed assets and assumption of debts, which also don't go through the P&L,

and adjusted for things like warrant redemptions and pipe receipts, which also also don't go through the P&L.

This doesn't result in an approximation. It results in a cash balance carried forward which is accurate to the penny if you have all the numbers.

Unfortunately, we do not have much of this info for Q4. We don't know anything from changes in working capital balances downwards, except we have a bead on warrants.

The bits that are not cash balances in this equation represent all of the cash flows in the period. The cash flows from operations are the P&L less the non-cash items, plus the adjustments to working capital. The whole thing is part of the debit and credit system from which the P&L and the balance sheet are also derived.

I think your method maybe has some double counting issues.


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The above is a reply to the following message:
Re: New theory
By: DigSpace
in ALEA
Fri, 23 Mar 12 8:06 PM
Msg. 07010 of 54959

2 things,

1. isn't cash in the bank cash in the bank? I mean what is called RD vs what is called SGA or COS seems couldbe a little blurry, but a cash balance is rather empirical is it not

2. when you do cash on hand guestimation, basically starting with cash last Q, then wacking it with loss, then putting back non-cash items ... I'm troubled by the first step, subtracting the loss (or adding the gain) as that is an accounting number not a cash number. It does not discriminate between say booked previously deferred revs and instabook revs, some of their revs are cash, some of them are not.

That is why I take previous Q cash, add revs after adjusting the revs (backing out GM, BASF defrevs e.g.) taking the remaining revs as billings and adding any known large acct (BP).

I don't see how step one, using the GAAP-GL (a cash/non-cash composite) cannot be very fraught with error. Just as Wave punished its GL back in Q1 by deferring, they are now booking revs that have no money behind them (smoothing the holes, but from a CF perspective, a hole).

So what am I missing?


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