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Re: Pumps

By: orda in ALEA | Recommend this post (0)
Wed, 12 Oct 11 6:16 PM | 36 view(s)
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Msg. 06020 of 54959
(This msg. is a reply to 06019 by Cactus Flower)

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All these are debatable. The celestial reference can be made to an earlier sighting. The plays all can be dated earlier. "Shakespeare's" knowledge is not poor. In fact, it is exactly right as only someone who was actually there would know. Shakespeare By another Name delved into all this in great detail. De Vere's juvenalia is something you would expect to see in a developmental stage. Noting of the sort can be said of the grain hoarder. All of the points you bring up are dealt with by many sources much better than I could expound on here. I'm not out to change anyone's mind but if you're truly interested I would recommend two books: Shakespeare By Another Name and The Mysterious William Shakespeare. Or two web sites:

http://www.shakespearefellowship.org/

http://www.shakespearebyanothername.com/




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The above is a reply to the following message:
Re: Pumps
By: Cactus Flower
in ALEA
Wed, 12 Oct 11 6:09 PM
Msg. 06019 of 54959

Hi orda,

What say you to the point that King Lear, which was first performed in 1606, makes reference to a celestial event in 1605 which occurred after De Vere's death in 1604? http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Troy/4081/Oxford.html

Or that Sonnet 145 is about Anne Hathaway, Shakespeare's wife?

Or that, in spite of the Oxfordian claims, unlike De Vere who had visited the continent, Shakespeare's knowledge of Europe is poor?

Or that the quality of Oxford's and Shakespeare's verse and their vocabulary is very different? - an opinion which is rather confirmed by stylometric analysis: "Our conclusion from the Clinic was that Shakespeare fit within a fairly narrow, distinctive profile under our best tests. If his poems were written by a committee, it was a remarkably consistent committee. If they were written by any of the claimants we tested, it was a remarkably inconsistent claimant. If they were written by the Earl of Oxford, he must, after taking the name of Shakespeare, have undergone several stylistic changes of a type and magnitude unknown in Shakespeare's accepted works. And, for both feminine endings and open lines, he must have somehow found a way to carry on trends which are well known in Shakespeare's plays for almost a decade after his own death. These are not easy assumptions to make. We do not claim to have said the last word on this subject, nor to have solved the Shakespeare authorship mystery. But, if it strains credulity to suppose that Will Shakspere, the Stratford grain dealer, could have written Shakespeare's poems and plays, it also strains credulity to suppose that people like Oxford, with entirely different stylistic idiosyncrasies from Shakespeare, could have been the true authors of his poems and plays." http://shakespeareauthorship.com/elval.html

Or that De Vere always called himself Oxenford, whereas Shakespeare, when he makes reference to that noble family in his plays, universally calls it Oxford?

Or that Shakespeare lived a few hundred yards from a school, which he likely attended, and in which Latin, the classics and rhetoric were taught by graduates of Oxford University?

Or that his contemporary, Thomas Heywood, wrote of him: "Mellifluous Shake-speare, whose enchanting quill commanded mirth or passion, was but Will."?

Or that his friend and play-writing competitor, Ben Jonson wrote him a eulogy which places him in the royal court?
"Sweet Swan of Avon! what a sight it were
To see thee in our waters yet appear,
And make those flights upon the banks of Thames,
That so did take Eliza, and our James!"

It's a high bar to get over, in my view.


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