>>> The SCOTUS can rule that what those courts have done is outside the realm of an "inferior" court.
Yes, they COULD rule that way. However they would have to rely on the 'establishing legislation' to back that opinion up. And that is the lynch pin they are lacking for legitimately making that ruling. Only Congress can do so.
Yes, they have recently ruled that a particular 'inferior court' lacked jurisdiction on a particular case, BUT ONLY because the enabling legislation for those 'inferior courts' showed that jurisdiction (for that case alone) belonged to a DIFFERENT 'inferior court'.

Finally, brethren, whatsoever things are true, whatsoever things are honest, whatsoever things are just, whatsoever things are pure, whatsoever things are lovely, whatsoever things are of good ...