Apologies. I realise I have managed to misdefine pedophilia.
First, I want to be clear that I meant it in a psychological sense rather than a legal one. I thought what Moore was doing was pedophilia in the 16-18 age range, with him in his 30s. This was in contrast to Alabama law, which apparently makes 16 the age of consent and has nothing to say about the age of the seducer.
Second, and here's the error, apparently an act of pedophilia in psychology requires the victim to be 13 or under and the perpetrator 16 or over. Moore, therefore, was simply attracted to very young, but post-pubescent women. He's still creepy, but not a pedophile, either in law or in psychology.
Last point, slightly different angle: it doesn't matter what age you are or the victim is if your actions are abusive. So if Moore abused a bunch of women, my one and two aren't relevant.
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